Hi all, like most westerners when I first heard about sin sod it left a bad taste in my mouth. The thought of 'paying' for a wife did not sit well. Of course then I realize I can't apply my values to others culture. So when in Rome do as the Romans. While pondering some thoughts the other day I began wondering how virginity or the lack of affects sin sod.
I am guessing it is presumed by most families that if the daughters are childless they are virgins regardless of whether they actually are or spent some time dancing around a chrome pole in Nana Plaza and hence you will pay accordingly. I am curious to know what the affect of non-virginity has on sin sod. For example a single mother who has never married. And if a woman has two children as opposed to one does that affect the amount? What if a woman is divorced? Since I would presume her first husband payed sin sod can the family ask for sin sod again and if they can is the amount reduced because she is no longer a virgin?
I know there are multiple questions in here so I will try to keep it simple. Lets say a family has 4 daughters and daughter A is a virgin. If the sin sod amount for daughter A is 100% what percent wound you pay for the following daughters? Would daughter B's sin sod be 50%, 75% or the same as daughter A? Let's assume all 4 daughters are to marry farangs.
Daughter B - single with 1 child
Daughter C - single with 2 children
Daughter D - Divorced





